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Free SIA Mock Test · Unit 2

Working in the Private Security Industry Mock Test

40 exam-style questions, one at a time — just like exam day. Score and full explanations at the end. Free, no signup.

This is the common unit taken by everyone doing a licence-linked qualification, whatever role they train for. It covers the purpose of the SIA and the Private Security Industry Act 2001, the roles and responsibilities of a security operative, relevant law, health and safety, communication skills, and record-keeping. Because it is shared across security roles, it is worth getting solid early.

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Question 1 of 40.Which piece of legislation established the Security Industry Authority (SIA) as the regulator of the private security industry?

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Prefer to read? All 40 questions with answers
  1. Which piece of legislation established the Security Industry Authority (SIA) as the regulator of the private security industry?

    • The Private Security Industry Act 2001 (correct answer)
    • The Security Guarding Act 1998
    • The Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974
    • The Licensing Act 2003

    The Private Security Industry Act 2001 created the SIA and introduced compulsory licensing for individuals carrying out designated security activities such as door supervision. The Licensing Act 2003 governs the sale of alcohol and regulated entertainment on premises, which is why it is a tempting distractor, but it does not regulate security operatives themselves. The Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 covers workplace safety, not security licensing.

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  2. What is the main statutory purpose of the SIA?

    • To employ door supervisors directly on behalf of licensed premises
    • To prosecute all crimes committed inside licensed premises
    • To regulate the licensing of individuals in the private security industry and protect the public (correct answer)
    • To set the price that security companies may charge their clients

    The SIA regulates compulsory licensing of individuals doing designated security work and runs the voluntary Approved Contractor Scheme, with the overall aim of protecting the public and raising standards. The SIA does not employ operatives, set commercial pricing, or act as a prosecuting authority; policing and prosecution remain the role of the police and the Crown Prosecution Service.

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  3. Working as a door supervisor without a valid SIA licence is:

    • Allowed for up to three months while an application is processed
    • Permitted as long as training has been completed
    • A civil matter dealt with only by the employer
    • A criminal offence (correct answer)

    Carrying out licensable security activity without a valid SIA licence is a criminal offence under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, and both the individual and anyone employing them can be prosecuted. Completing training does not by itself entitle a person to work; the licence must actually be granted first. There is no automatic grace period that allows unlicensed working while an application is pending.

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  4. For how long is an SIA door supervisor licence normally valid before it must be renewed?

    • Three years (correct answer)
    • Five years
    • One year
    • Two years

    An SIA front-line licence such as the door supervisor licence is normally valid for three years, after which the holder must apply to renew it. One and two years are too short, and five years is too long; three years is the standard duration for a front-line licence.

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  5. Which of the following best describes the difference between civil law and criminal law?

    • There is no practical difference between the two
    • Civil law only applies to companies and criminal law only applies to people
    • Criminal law settles disputes between individuals; civil law punishes offenders
    • Civil law deals with disputes between individuals or organisations, while criminal law deals with offences against the state (correct answer)

    Criminal law deals with offences considered to be against society or the state and is usually prosecuted by the state, whereas civil law resolves disputes between individuals or organisations, such as claims for compensation. The first option reverses the two definitions. Both branches of law can apply to individuals and to companies, so the distinction is about the type of matter, not who is involved.

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  6. What is the difference between common law and statute law?

    • Statute law is optional but common law is compulsory
    • Common law applies only in Scotland and statute law only in England
    • Common law is developed through decisions of the courts, while statute law is written law passed by Parliament (correct answer)
    • Common law is made by Parliament; statute law is made by judges

    Common law develops over time through the decisions and precedents set by judges in the courts, while statute law is the written law enacted by Parliament, such as the Private Security Industry Act 2001. The first option reverses these definitions. Both types of law apply across the relevant UK jurisdictions and are legally binding, so neither is optional.

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  7. Under section 3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967, a person may use force that is:

    • Whatever force the person feels is necessary at the time, without limit
    • Reasonable in the circumstances in the prevention of crime or in making a lawful arrest (correct answer)
    • Permitted only if a police officer is present
    • Only ever the minimum needed to restrain someone by handcuffs

    Section 3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967 allows a person to use such force as is reasonable in the circumstances in the prevention of crime or in effecting or assisting a lawful arrest. Force is never unlimited; it must be reasonable and proportionate. A police officer does not need to be present, and there is no rule requiring a specific method such as handcuffs.

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  8. When the courts judge whether a security operative used 'reasonable force', the key test is whether the force was:

    • The same amount of force the aggressor used first
    • Reasonable in the circumstances as the person honestly believed them to be (correct answer)
    • Approved in advance by the venue manager
    • Written into the operative's job description

    The law tests reasonableness against the circumstances as the person honestly believed them to be, and the force used must then be reasonable and proportionate in those circumstances. Prior approval by a manager is irrelevant to the legal test. Force does not have to exactly mirror the aggressor's, and a job description cannot make otherwise unreasonable force lawful.

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  9. A door supervisor uses significantly more force than is needed to remove a compliant customer who is already leaving. This is most likely to be:

    • A matter only for the SIA, not the criminal courts
    • Acceptable, provided it was recorded in the incident log
    • Lawful, because the customer was being asked to leave
    • Unlawful, because the force was not reasonable or proportionate (correct answer)

    Force must be both reasonable and proportionate to the actual threat; using excessive force on a compliant person who is already leaving is disproportionate and is likely to amount to assault. Being asked to leave does not justify unnecessary force, and recording the incident does not make unlawful force lawful. Excessive force can lead to criminal prosecution as well as loss of the SIA licence.

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  10. Which Act sets out the rights and freedoms that public authorities must respect, and which are relevant when security operatives interact with the public?

    • The Equality Act 2010
    • The Fire Safety Order 2005
    • The Data Protection Act 2018
    • The Human Rights Act 1998 (correct answer)

    The Human Rights Act 1998 incorporates the European Convention on Human Rights into UK law and protects rights such as liberty and freedom from degrading treatment. The Equality Act 2010 deals with discrimination, the Data Protection Act 2018 with personal data, and the Fire Safety Order with fire safety, so those cover different subject areas even though a professional operative respects them all.

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  11. Under the Equality Act 2010, which of the following is a 'protected characteristic'?

    • Postcode of residence
    • Religion or belief (correct answer)
    • Length of service with an employer
    • Job title

    Religion or belief is one of the nine protected characteristics under the Equality Act 2010, along with age, disability, gender reassignment, marriage and civil partnership, pregnancy and maternity, race, sex and sexual orientation. Job title, length of service and postcode are not protected characteristics, so treating someone differently based on them is not covered by the Act in the same way.

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  12. A door supervisor refuses entry to a wheelchair user solely because using the accessible route is 'too much effort'. This is most likely an example of:

    • A health and safety measure
    • Unlawful discrimination on the grounds of disability (correct answer)
    • Reasonable use of discretion
    • Acceptable customer profiling

    Refusing service because of a person's disability, and failing to make reasonable adjustments, is unlawful discrimination under the Equality Act 2010. It is not legitimate discretion, and it is not a genuine health and safety measure. Profiling people on the basis of a protected characteristic such as disability is precisely what equality law is designed to prevent.

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  13. What does the term 'direct discrimination' mean under equality law?

    • Searching every customer entering the venue
    • Giving customers a written reason for refusal
    • Treating someone less favourably because of a protected characteristic (correct answer)
    • Applying the same rule to everyone equally

    Direct discrimination is treating a person less favourably than others because of a protected characteristic such as race, sex or religion. Applying the same rule to everyone is the opposite of discrimination in most cases. Giving a reason for refusal and searching all customers are operational matters and are not, in themselves, definitions of discrimination.

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  14. The main aim of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 is to:

    • Ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare of people at work (correct answer)
    • Set the minimum wage for security staff
    • Decide who is allowed to sell alcohol
    • License door supervisors to work in nightclubs

    The Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 places a general duty on employers to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare of employees and others affected by the work. It does not set wages, issue SIA licences, or control alcohol sales, which are dealt with by other legislation and bodies.

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  15. Under health and safety law, what duty does an employee (such as a door supervisor) have?

    • To take reasonable care for their own safety and that of others, and to co-operate with the employer (correct answer)
    • No duties at all, because responsibility rests solely with the employer
    • To carry out their own risk assessments for the whole venue
    • To pay for all their own protective equipment

    Employees must take reasonable care for their own health and safety and that of others affected by their acts, and must co-operate with their employer on safety matters. Responsibility does not rest solely with the employer; both share duties. Employees are not generally required to carry out venue-wide risk assessments or to fund essential protective equipment, which is normally the employer's responsibility.

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  16. What is the primary purpose of a risk assessment?

    • To record how much alcohol has been sold
    • To count the number of customers refused entry
    • To identify hazards and reduce the risk of harm to people (correct answer)
    • To decide the ticket price for an event

    A risk assessment identifies hazards, evaluates the risks they present and puts control measures in place to reduce the chance of harm. It is a health and safety tool, not a commercial or sales record, so it has nothing to do with alcohol sales figures, ticket pricing or refusal counts, which are recorded separately for other reasons.

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  17. In health and safety terms, what is the difference between a 'hazard' and a 'risk'?

    • They mean exactly the same thing
    • A risk is always more serious than a hazard
    • A hazard only applies indoors and a risk only applies outdoors
    • A hazard is something with the potential to cause harm; a risk is the likelihood of that harm occurring (correct answer)

    A hazard is anything with the potential to cause harm, such as a wet floor, while risk is the likelihood that the hazard will actually cause harm and how serious it could be. The two terms are not interchangeable, and neither is limited by location. Seriousness depends on the specific situation rather than on which word is used.

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  18. Which regulations require certain serious workplace accidents, injuries and dangerous occurrences to be reported?

    • RIDDOR (correct answer)
    • PACE
    • COSHH
    • GDPR

    RIDDOR, the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations, requires responsible persons to report specified serious injuries, occupational diseases and dangerous occurrences. COSHH covers hazardous substances, GDPR relates to personal data, and PACE is the Police and Criminal Evidence Act, so none of those govern accident reporting in the way RIDDOR does.

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  19. A door supervisor spots a trailing electrical cable across a fire exit route. What is the most appropriate first action?

    • Take reasonable steps to make it safe or report it so it can be dealt with (correct answer)
    • Ignore it, as it is not a security matter
    • Wait until the end of the shift to mention it
    • Move all customers to that exit to test if anyone trips

    A trailing cable across an exit is a slip, trip and fall hazard as well as an obstruction to escape, so the operative should make it safe if it is reasonable to do so and report it promptly. Ignoring it or delaying until the shift ends leaves people at risk, and deliberately routing customers over it to see if they trip would be dangerous and irresponsible.

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  20. The three things a fire needs to burn, often called the 'fire triangle', are:

    • Wood, paper and plastic
    • Heat, fuel and oxygen (correct answer)
    • Smoke, alarm and sprinkler
    • Water, foam and sand

    The fire triangle consists of heat, fuel and oxygen; removing any one of these will extinguish or prevent a fire. Water, foam and sand are examples of extinguishing methods rather than the elements a fire needs. Smoke and alarms are consequences and warnings, and wood, paper and plastic are just particular examples of fuel.

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  21. On discovering a fire in a busy venue, what should a door supervisor's priority be?

    • Raise the alarm and help ensure people are evacuated safely (correct answer)
    • Collect the day's takings before doing anything else
    • Fight the fire alone regardless of its size
    • Lock the exits to control the crowd

    The priority in a fire is life safety: raise the alarm, call the fire service and help evacuate people calmly via the nearest safe exit. Protecting property such as takings comes a distant second to protecting life. Tackling a large fire alone is dangerous, and locking exits could trap people, which is why escape routes must always be kept clear.

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  22. Why must fire exits and escape routes be kept clear at all times?

    • To make the venue look tidy for inspectors
    • So more customers can be admitted
    • So people can evacuate quickly and safely in an emergency (correct answer)
    • Because the SIA inspects them every night

    Fire exits and escape routes must stay clear so that everyone can leave quickly and safely if there is a fire or other emergency; obstructions can cost lives. Keeping them clear is about safety, not appearance or increasing capacity, and it is required regardless of any inspection regime. The SIA is the licensing regulator and does not carry out nightly fire inspections.

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  23. A fire extinguisher with a blue label or blue band is generally used for fires involving:

    • Electrical equipment and a range of fire types (dry powder) (correct answer)
    • Deep-fat fryer and cooking-oil fires only, and never anything else
    • Flammable metals only, and unsafe on any other class of fire
    • Only paper and wood, because dry powder must never be used on other materials

    In the UK colour-coding scheme, a blue label or band indicates a dry powder extinguisher, which is a multi-purpose type that can be used on several classes of fire including electrical equipment, flammable liquids and flammable gases. It is not restricted to cooking-oil fires (that is the yellow wet-chemical type), nor to paper and wood alone (the red water type), and it is not a metals-only special powder; a blue dry-powder extinguisher is deliberately versatile.

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  24. When calling the emergency services to report a serious incident, it is most important to:

    • Only call if a manager has personally authorised it
    • Give clear information about what has happened and the exact location (correct answer)
    • Keep the call as short as possible and hang up quickly
    • Provide your SIA licence number before anything else

    The emergency operator needs clear, accurate information, especially the exact location and nature of the incident, so help can be sent to the right place quickly. You should not rush to end the call before the operator has what they need, you do not need manager authorisation to call 999 in a genuine emergency, and giving your licence number first is not a priority.

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  25. Which of the following would normally be treated as an emergency requiring immediate action?

    • A person who has collapsed and is not breathing normally (correct answer)
    • A queue forming at the bar
    • A customer complaining that the music is too loud
    • A guest asking for directions to the toilets

    A collapsed person who is not breathing normally is a medical emergency requiring immediate action, including calling 999 and starting first aid such as CPR if trained. A noise complaint, a busy bar and a request for directions are routine matters that a door supervisor handles calmly and do not, by themselves, threaten life or require emergency services.

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  26. If a colleague is injured and there is a designated first aider on site, the door supervisor should usually:

    • Attempt any medical treatment they can think of, even if untrained
    • Move the casualty immediately regardless of their injuries
    • Summon the first aider and, if needed, the emergency services, and follow their guidance (correct answer)
    • Wait until the end of the event before doing anything

    The safest approach is to get help from the designated first aider and call the emergency services if the injury is serious, then assist as directed and keep the area safe. Attempting treatment beyond your training, or moving a casualty who may have a spinal or other serious injury, can cause further harm, and delaying help until the event ends could be life-threatening.

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  27. Why is clear and effective communication important for a door supervisor?

    • It is only important when speaking to the police
    • It is only needed when using a radio
    • It helps prevent misunderstandings, de-escalate conflict and coordinate a safe response to incidents (correct answer)
    • It replaces the need for written records

    Good communication helps prevent misunderstandings, defuse potential conflict and coordinate an effective, safe response, whether face to face, on the radio or in writing. It is not limited to radio use or to dealing with the police, and it certainly does not replace written records, which remain essential evidence of what happened.

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  28. When using two-way radios, why are standard call signs and clear procedures used?

    • To keep messages brief, clear and understood by everyone on the channel (correct answer)
    • To make conversations sound more official to customers
    • Because the SIA requires a specific brand of radio
    • So that only managers can understand the messages

    Standard call signs and radio procedures keep transmissions short, clear and easily understood, which is vital when coordinating a response during an incident. The purpose is effective communication rather than sounding official, and messages should be understood by the whole team, not just managers. The SIA does not mandate a particular brand of radio equipment.

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  29. Why should a door supervisor keep accurate records of incidents in an incident log or notebook?

    • Because handwritten notes are more important than radio calls
    • Records are only needed if the police ask for them months later
    • Accurate, contemporaneous records provide reliable evidence and support any later investigation or court proceedings (correct answer)
    • So the venue can charge customers for the paperwork

    Accurate notes made at or near the time of an incident are far more reliable than memory and can be used as evidence to support investigations, insurance claims and court proceedings. Records should be kept as a matter of routine, not only when the police eventually ask. They are not a charging mechanism, and their value comes from accuracy rather than from being handwritten as such.

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  30. Which of the following details would be most useful to include when recording an incident?

    • The names of staff who were not present
    • Only your personal opinion about who was to blame
    • A guess at the customer's home address
    • The date, time, location, people involved and a factual description of what happened (correct answer)

    A good incident record is factual and includes the date, time, location, the people involved, descriptions and what was said and done, so it can be relied upon later. Records should state facts rather than opinions about blame, should not contain guesses such as an unknown address, and should not include staff who were not actually there, as that would be inaccurate.

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  31. Under UK data protection law, which two are the main legal frameworks governing the handling of personal data?

    • The Licensing Act 2003 and the Fire Safety Order 2005
    • The Human Rights Act 1998 and the Equality Act 2010
    • The Private Security Industry Act 2001 and RIDDOR
    • The UK GDPR and the Data Protection Act 2018 (correct answer)

    Personal data in the UK is governed mainly by the UK GDPR working alongside the Data Protection Act 2018. The Licensing Act and Fire Safety Order deal with alcohol and fire, the Human Rights Act and Equality Act cover rights and discrimination, and the Private Security Industry Act and RIDDOR concern licensing and accident reporting, so those pairs relate to different subject areas.

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  32. In data protection terms, what is 'personal data'?

    • Only a person's bank details
    • Information relating to an identified or identifiable living individual (correct answer)
    • Any information kept by a business, whether about people or not
    • Only information stored on a computer

    Personal data is information relating to a living individual who can be identified from that data, such as a name, image on CCTV or contact details. It is much broader than just bank details, does not include information that is not about people, and applies to both paper and electronic records, so it is not limited to computer files.

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  33. CCTV footage that shows identifiable people is treated under data protection law as:

    • Public information that anyone may request a copy of at any time
    • Personal data, so it must be handled lawfully and securely (correct answer)
    • Not personal data, because it is only images
    • Exempt from all data protection rules

    Images of identifiable individuals captured on CCTV are personal data, so the footage must be processed lawfully, kept securely and retained only as long as necessary. It is not exempt from the rules, and members of the public cannot simply demand any footage they like; access is controlled, for example through a subject access request limited to their own data, and other people's images may need to be protected.

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  34. A door supervisor is told a customer's personal details 'in confidence' by a colleague. Under data protection principles, they should:

    • Sell the information to a marketing company
    • Post the details on social media to warn others
    • Share the details freely with other customers
    • Only use and disclose the information for legitimate, lawful purposes and keep it secure (correct answer)

    Personal data must be used only for legitimate, lawful purposes, kept secure and not disclosed without a proper basis. Sharing it with other customers, posting it on social media or selling it would all breach data protection law and could cause serious harm to the individual, as well as exposing the operative and employer to enforcement action.

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  35. Which of the following best describes the role of a door supervisor with regard to the law?

    • They can arrest, detain and question anyone at will
    • They generally have the same legal powers as any other member of the public, plus responsibilities set by their role and licence (correct answer)
    • They are above the law while working
    • They have the same legal powers as a police constable

    A door supervisor is not a police officer; in law they broadly have the same powers as an ordinary member of the public, such as a citizen's arrest in limited circumstances, alongside the professional responsibilities of their role and licence. They cannot detain or question people at will, do not share full police powers, and are certainly not above the law themselves.

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  36. When can a security operative carry out a 'citizen's arrest' for an indictable offence?

    • For any minor rule the venue has, at any time
    • Only after the police give written permission
    • Never, under any circumstances
    • Where an indictable offence is being or has been committed and it is not reasonably practicable for a constable to make the arrest (correct answer)

    Under the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, a member of the public may arrest someone for an indictable offence that is being, or has been, committed where it is not reasonably practicable for a constable to make the arrest and the arrest is necessary. It does not apply to minor venue rules, does not require prior written police permission, and is not something that can never be done, though it must be used carefully.

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  37. The Terrorism (Protection of Premises) Act 2025, known as 'Martyn's Law', is intended to:

    • Improve preparedness for and protection against terrorist attacks at certain premises and events (correct answer)
    • Set the pay rates for door supervisors
    • Replace the SIA as the security regulator
    • Make CCTV illegal in public venues

    Martyn's Law is designed to improve the preparedness of certain qualifying premises and events for terrorist attacks and to help protect the public. It received Royal Assent in April 2025 but its requirements are being introduced over an implementation period and are not yet fully in force. It does not replace the SIA, set pay, or ban CCTV.

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  38. Which national alert can indicate the current assessed likelihood of a terrorist attack in the UK?

    • The venue's fire risk rating
    • The SIA licence status
    • The UK national threat level (for example, 'substantial' or 'severe') (correct answer)
    • The local weather warning

    The UK national threat level, set by expert assessment, indicates the likelihood of a terrorist attack using levels such as low, moderate, substantial, severe and critical, and helps organisations decide on protective measures. An SIA licence status, a fire risk rating and a weather warning are all important in their own contexts but do not describe the terrorism threat level.

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  39. A key principle of good customer care and professional conduct for a door supervisor is to:

    • Give priority only to customers who tip
    • Refuse entry to anyone the operative personally dislikes
    • Use force as the first response to any problem
    • Treat every customer with respect, fairness and without unlawful discrimination (correct answer)

    Professional conduct means treating everyone with respect and fairness and avoiding unlawful discrimination, which also supports the venue's reputation and the operative's licence. Favouring customers who tip, refusing entry out of personal dislike, or using force as a first resort are all unprofessional and could breach equality law or the law on reasonable force.

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  40. Which of the following actions would most clearly put a door supervisor's SIA licence at risk?

    • Reporting an incident accurately to their employer
    • Completing continuing professional development
    • Being convicted of a relevant criminal offence such as assault (correct answer)
    • Wearing their licence visibly while on duty

    A relevant criminal conviction, such as one for assault, can lead the SIA to revoke or refuse a licence because it affects the person's fitness to hold one. Displaying the licence while on duty, undertaking professional development and reporting incidents accurately are all examples of good practice that support, rather than threaten, continued licensing.

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FAQ: Working in the Private Security Industry

Is the Working in the Private Security Industry unit assessed by an exam?

Yes. This unit is assessed by a multiple-choice exam set and marked by your awarding organisation. This mock is written in the same style so you can rehearse before the real thing. It is study practice only, not the actual exam.

What is the pass mark for the Working in the Private Security Industry exam?

Awarding organisations set the pass mark per exam version and generally do not publish a single fixed percentage, so your training provider will confirm the exact figure before you sit the exam. This mock uses a 70% benchmark as a sensible study target — clear it comfortably and you are in good shape.

Are these the real SIA exam questions?

No. Real exam questions are confidential and belong to the awarding organisations. Every question here is original, written to mirror the style, difficulty and published content of the unit. Scoring well is strong evidence you are ready, not a preview of the exact questions.

Is this mock test free?

Yes — every question, explanation and score report is free, with no signup and no expiring trial. Retake it as many times as you like.

Passing the exam is step one

To work on the door you need the full Level 2 Award, a valid first aid qualification, and an SIA licence. See exactly what is involved, what it costs, and how to apply.